Medical Ethics Unit 2: Aborting a Tay-Sachs Foetus

Can we say that Nathan would have been better not to be born?

What are the ethical challenges of saying that?

What Jewish values/texts would inform an answer to this question?

Assuming we can halachically abort such a foetus, what are the ethical dangers of doing so?

If we say it is okay to abort, what about other genetic disorders, such as Down's Syndrome?

Pre-natal genetic screening allows parents to know if their child will have Down's Syndrome. 90% of them do so. Is it unethical to select such children for abortion?

How do you draw the line between normal/abnormal?

The Torah teaches us that every moment of life is intrinsically valuable; life itself is never futile. Rabbi Shlomo Zalman Auerbach, a leading halachic authority of the past generation, points out that we have no "yardstick" by which to measure value of life. Even for a deaf, demented elderly man, incapable of doing any mitzvot, we must violate the Shabbat to save his life.(Auerbach, Rav Shlomo Zalman, "Responsum Regarding a Very Sick Patient," Halacha U'Refuah, vol. 3, p60

It is not within our moral jurisdiction to decide what quality of life is "not worth living" and therefore unworthy of treatment. (Auerbach, Rav Shlomo Zalman, "Treatment of the Dying," Halacha U'Refuah, vol. 2, p. 131: "a person is not master of his body to relinquish even one moment")

English

Although these passages are about end-of-life, they are interesting to apply to our case. What would Rav Auerbach say about aborting a tay-sachs or downs syndrome foetus? Is the situation different?

(ו) שֹׁפֵךְ֙ דַּ֣ם הָֽאָדָ֔ם בָּֽאָדָ֖ם דָּמ֣וֹ יִשָּׁפֵ֑ךְ כִּ֚י בְּצֶ֣לֶם אֱלֹהִ֔ים עָשָׂ֖ה אֶת־הָאָדָֽם׃
(6) Whoso sheddeth man’s blood, by man shall his blood be shed; for in the image of God made He man.
(כב) וְכִֽי־יִנָּצ֣וּ אֲנָשִׁ֗ים וְנָ֨גְפ֜וּ אִשָּׁ֤ה הָרָה֙ וְיָצְא֣וּ יְלָדֶ֔יהָ וְלֹ֥א יִהְיֶ֖ה אָס֑וֹן עָנ֣וֹשׁ יֵעָנֵ֗שׁ כַּֽאֲשֶׁ֨ר יָשִׁ֤ית עָלָיו֙ בַּ֣עַל הָֽאִשָּׁ֔ה וְנָתַ֖ן בִּפְלִלִֽים׃ (כג) וְאִם־אָס֖וֹן יִהְיֶ֑ה וְנָתַתָּ֥ה נֶ֖פֶשׁ תַּ֥חַת נָֽפֶשׁ׃ (כד) עַ֚יִן תַּ֣חַת עַ֔יִן שֵׁ֖ן תַּ֣חַת שֵׁ֑ן יָ֚ד תַּ֣חַת יָ֔ד רֶ֖גֶל תַּ֥חַת רָֽגֶל׃ (כה) כְּוִיָּה֙ תַּ֣חַת כְּוִיָּ֔ה פֶּ֖צַע תַּ֣חַת פָּ֑צַע חַבּוּרָ֕ה תַּ֖חַת חַבּוּרָֽה׃ (ס)

(22) And if men strive together, and hurt a woman with child, so that her fruit depart, and yet no harm follow, he shall be surely fined, according as the woman’s husband shall lay upon him; and he shall pay as the judges determine. (23) But if any harm follow, then thou shalt give life for life, (24) eye for eye, tooth for tooth, hand for hand, foot for foot, (25) burning for burning, wound for wound, stripe for stripe.

According to Torah civil law, is the foetus treated as a full human being? If not, what is it?

what does it mean by saying it is only "fluid"?

What does this imply about 1st trimester abortion?

(ו) האשה שהיא מקשה לילד, מחתכין את הולד במעיה ומוציאין אותו אברים אברים, מפני שחייה קודמין לחייו. יצא רבו, אין נוגעין בו, שאין דוחין נפש מפני נפש.

(6) [If] a woman is having trouble giving birth, they cut up the fetus inside her and take it out limb by limb, because her life comes before its life. If most of it had come out already they do not touch it because we do not push off one life for another.

What is the foetus' status in the womb?

What does it mean when it says "her life comes first"? Why should it?

עיברה לא תאכל בתרומה נחתך העובר במעיה תאכל ...

והתניא בת כהן שנישאת לישראל ומת טובלת ואוכלת בתרומה לערב אמר רב חסדא טובלת ואוכלת עד ארבעים דאי לא מיעברא הא לא מיעברא ואי מיעברא עד ארבעים מיא בעלמא היא

If a priest's daughter was married to an Israelite who died, she may perform her ritual immersion and eat terumah the same evening! R. Hisda replied: ... She performs the immersion but may eat terumah only until the fortieth day. For if she is not found pregnant36 she never was pregnant;37 and if she is found pregnant,38 the semen, until the fortieth day, is only a mere fluid.

What is the case being discussed?

What is the ruling?

What does this say about the status of a fetus?

ששנינו הרי את שפחה וולדך בן חורין אם היתה עוברה זכתה לו מאי אם היתה עוברה זכתה לו כי אתא רב שמואל בר יהודה אמר ר' יוחנן תרתי אמר נראים דברים שהעבד מקבל גט לחבירו מיד רבו של חבירו אבל לא מיד רבו שלו ואם לחשך אדם לומר זו הלכה שנויה אם היתה עוברה זכתה לו אמור לו שני גדולי הדור פירשו את הדבר ר' זירא ור' שמואל בר רב יצחק חד אמר הא מני רבי היא דאמר המשחרר חצי עבדו קנה וחד אמר מאי טעמא דרבי בהא קסבר עובר ירך אמו הוא ונעשה כמי שהקנה לה אחד מאבריה:

[If a man says to his female slave], 'You are a slave, but your child is free', if she was pregnant at the time she acquires freedom for it [the child].6 What is the point of [quoting]: 'if she was pregnant, she acquires freedom for it'?7 — When R. Samuel b. Judah came [from Palestine], he said: R. Johanan said two things. [One was the dictum regarding a Get quoted above]. The other was this: It seems a reasonable view that a slave can receive a writ of emancipation on behalf of another slave from the master of that slave but not from his own master.8 And if someone should whisper in your ear9 that there is a halachah laid down which contradicts this, [viz.] 'If she was pregnant, she acquires freedom for it,'10 reply to him that two great authorities in their generation, R. Zera and R. Samuel b. Isaac, explained the matter. One said that this [teaching] follows the opinion of Rabbi who said that if a man emancipates the half of his slave, the slave acquires [freedom in regard to the one half], and the other said [in further explanation] that the reason of Rabbi [for applying this to the present case] is that he looks upon the embryo as part of the mother, and therefore the master [in freeing the child] as it were made her owner of one of her own limbs.

What is the case being discussed, and what is the ruling?

What approach does this text take to the nature of the foetus?

If a foetus is a "limb of the mother," should she be allowed to abort it?

איתיביה רב חסדא לרב הונא יצא ראשו אין נוגעין בו לפי שאין דוחין נפש מפני נפש ואמאי רודף הוא שאני התם דמשמיא קא רדפי לה

R. Hisda asked R. Huna: we learnt: "Once his head has come forth, he may not be harmed, because one life may not be taken to save another."But why so? Is he not a pursuer? — There it is different, for she is pursued by heaven.

יצא ראשו - באשה המקשה לילד ומסוכנת וקתני רישא החיה פושטת ידה וחותכתו ומוציאתו לאברים דכל זמן שלא יצא לאויר העולם לאו נפש הוא וניתן להורגו ולהציל את אמו אבל יצא ראשו אין נוגעים בו להורגו דהוה ליה כילוד ואין דוחין נפש מפני נפש
[In the case of] a pregnant woman [who is in mortal danger during childbirth, she may] extend her hand and cut up [her fetus] and remove it limb by limb, for as long as it has not emerged to the world, it is not a nefesh [soul] and it is permitted to kill it and to save its mother. But if its head has emerged, one may not touch it to kill it, for it is as living offspring, and one does not set aside one nefesh for another.

According to this text, is the foetus a rodef before it comes out?

Is it a rodef once the head comes out?

Why would the halachic status of the child change once its head has emerged?

If the mother were NOT in danger, according to this text, may she have an abortion?

If not, what is the origin of the prohibition?

מתני׳ תנוק בן יום אחד ... וההורגו חייב והרי הוא לאביו ולאמו ולכל קרוביו כחתן שלם

וההורגו חייב דכתיב (ויקרא כד, יז) ואיש כי יכה כל נפש מ"מ והרי הוא לאביו ולאמו ולכל קרוביו כחתן שלם למאי הלכתא אמר רב פפא לענין אבלות

MISHNAH. A BOY ONE DAY OLD...HE WHO KILLS HIM IS GUILTY OF MURDER, AND HE COUNTS TO HIS FATHER, TO HIS MOTHER AND TO ALL HIS RELATIVES AS1 A FULLY GROWN MAN.

since it is written, And he that smiteth any man mortally,implying, whatever the age.14

According to this text, at what point is abortion/infanticide considered killing?

Before that point, what is the status of the baby?

Does this imply a prohibition on killing it?

(ט) אף זו מצות לא תעשה שלא לחוס על נפש הרודף. לפיכך הורו חכמים שהעוברה שהיא מקשה לילד מותר לחתוך העובר במיעיה. בין בסם בין ביד מפני שהוא כרודף אחריה להורגה. ואם משהוציא ראשו אין נוגעין בו שאין דוחין נפש מפני נפש וזהו טבעו של עולם.
(9) ... It is a negative commandment that one should not protect the life of a rodef (pursuer). For this reason, the sages ruled that in the case of a pregnant woman in a dangerous labor, it is permissible to dismember the fetus in her womb - whether with a drug or by hand because it is like a rodef pursuing her to kill her. However, once his head has emerged one may not touch him, as we do not set aside one nefesh [soul] for another, and this is the natural way of the world.

According to Rambam, what is the reason we allow an abortion?

Is the ban d'rabbanan (i.e. based in Torah) or d'oraita (i.e. a rabbinic enactment)? (hint: there is a clue in the text)

According to him, what is the reason we do not allow an abortion on a partially born foetus?

How does Rambam understand Sanhedrin 72b?

What would Rambam say in a situation where the fetus is not a rodef?

ופוסל מן התרומה (ויקרא כב, יג) וזרע אין לה אמר רחמנא והא אית לה מאי איריא זרע אפילו עובר נמי דכתיב כנעוריה פרט למעוברת צריכי דאי כתב רחמנא וזרע אין לה משום דמעיקרא חד גופא והשתא תרי גופי אבל הכא דמעיקרא חד גופא והשתא חד גופא אימא תיכול כתב רחמנא כנעוריה ואי כתב רחמנא כנעוריה משום דמעיקרא גופה סריקא והשתא גופה מליא אבל הכא דמעיקרא גופה סריקא והשתא גופה סריקא אימא תיכול צריכא קראי אתרוץ אלא מתניתין מאי אריא בן יום אחד אפי' עובר נמי אמר רב ששת הב"ע בכהן שיש לו שתי נשים אחת גרושה ואחת שאינה גרושה ויש לו בנים משאינה גרושה ויש לו בן יום אחד מן הגרושה דפוסל בעבדי אביו מלאכול בתרומה ולאפוקי מדר' יוסי דאמר עובר נמי פוסל קמ"ל

בן יום אחד אין עובר לא נוחל ומנחיל נוחל ממאן מאביו ומנחיל למאן לאחיו מאביו אי בעי מאבוה לירתי ואי בעי מיניה לירתי אמר רב ששת נוחל בנכסי האם להנחיל לאחיו מן האב ודוקא בן יום אחד אבל עובר לא מ"ט דהוא מיית ברישא ואין הבן יורש את אמו

AND HE ALSO CAUSES HER TO BE DISQUALIFIED FROM EATING TERUMAH. For the All Merciful has said, And have no child,22 but she has one. But what was the point of speaking of a 'child' seeing that the same applies even to an embryo, for it is written,23 As in her youth,22 which excludes24 one who is pregnant?25 Both texts were required. For if the All Merciful had only written, 'And have no child' [it might have been presumed that the law26 applied to that case] because originally there was but one body and now there are two bodies,27 but that in this case,28 where there was originally one body and now also there is only one body, it may be held that the woman may eat terumah, hence the All Merciful has written, 'As in her youth'.29 And if the All Merciful has only written, 'As in her youth' [it might have been presumed that the law30 applied to that case alone] since originally the woman's body was empty and now it is a full one, but that in this case,31 where her body was originally empty and is now also empty, the woman may well eat terumah. Hence the necessity for both texts. Now, the Scriptural texts have been well explained, but as regards our Mishnah, why just A BOY ONE DAY OLD, seeing32 that even an embryo also disqualifies its mother? — R. Shesheth replied: We are here dealing with the case of a priest who had two wives, one who had previously been a divorced woman33 and the other was not a divorced woman,34 and he had sons from the latter35 and one son from the former,36 so that the latter37 causes the slaves of his father38 to be disqualified from eating terumah;39 thus indicating that the law is contrary to the view40 of R. Jose. He having laid down that an embryo41 also causes disqualification we were informed here that only A BOY ONE DAY OLD causes disqualification but not an embryo

HE INHERITS AND TRANSMITS. From whom does he INHERIT? Obviously from his father; and to whom does he TRANSMIT? Obviously to his paternal brothers;43 but could not these if they wished inherit from their father and, if they preferred, inherit from him?44 — R. Shesheth replied: The meaning is, He45 inherits the estate of his mother to transmit it46 to his paternal brothers;47 hence only then when he is ONE DAY OLD but not when he is an embryo. What is the reason? — Because it48 dies first, [when the mother dies]49 and no son may inherit from his mother in the grave1 to transmit the inheritance to his paternal brothers. But, surely, this2 is not? so, for was there not a case where an embryo made three convulsive movements?3 — Mar son of R. Ashi replied: [Those were only reflexive movements] like those of the tail of the lizard which moves convulsively [even after it has been cut off].4

איהו מיית ברישא. והא דתנן בפ' בהמה המקשה (חולין דף עד.) השוחט את הבהמה ומצא בה בן ט' חי יש חילוק בין מתה לנהרגה כדאמר בערכין (דף ז.) והא דאמר נמי בהשוחט במתה אמה והדר ילידתיה היינו נמי כשנהרגה אי נמי כגון דמתה אמו מחמת לידה דכיון דעקר הולד לצאת אז לא מיית כדאמר שמואל שילהי פ"ק דערכין (דף ז.) ישבה על המשבר ומתה מחתכין אותה בשבת ומוציאין הולד וא"ת אם כן עובר נוחל ומנחיל בישבה על המשבר ומתה תחלה

י"ל דאין הכי נמי ונקט בן יום אחד משום דפסיקא ליה דנוחל ומנחיל אבל עובר לא פסיקא ליה

ומיהא בן יום אחד ההורגו חייב דקתני אבל עובר לא היינו אפילו נהרגה או ישבה על המשבר עד שיצא ראשו כדתנן במסכת אהלות פ"ז (משנה ו) ומייתי לה בפרק בן סורר ומורה (סנהדרין דף עב:) אשה המקשה חותך אבר יצא ראשו אין דוחין נפש מפני נפש

ומיהו אפשר דדוקא היכא דאמו חיה לא מיחייב ההורגו עד שיצא ראשו שתלוי קצת בחיות אמו אבל היכא דמתה חייב משום דכמונח בקופסא דמי

וא"ת אם תמצי לומר דמותר להורגו בבטן אפי' מתה אמו ולא הוי כמונח בקופסא אמאי מחללין עליו את השבת שמביאין סכין דרך ר"ה לקרוע האם כדמוכח בפ' קמא דערכין (דף ז:)

וי"ל דמכל מקום משום פקוח נפש מחללין עליו את השבת אף ע"ג דמותר להרגו דהא גוסס בידי אדם ההורגו פטור כדאמר פרק הנשרפין (סנהדרין עח.) דרוב גוססים למיתה ומחללין את השבת עליו כדאמר פרק בתרא דיומא (ד' פד:) דאין מהלכין בפקוח נפש אחר הרוב:

"It dies first." But we have learned in Perek "Behemah Hamaksheh" (Hullin 74a) that in the case of one who slaughters an animal and finds a live 9-month old, there is a distinction between 'died' and 'killed,' as it says in Arachin 7a: "But it also said ...

If you say : if so, the embryo should inherit and cause to inherit, in the situation of a woman who started to give birth and died first

One could respond: Yes, indeed! And it specifies a one day old because it rules that it inherits and causes to inherit, but an embryo it does not rule this way.

However, one who kills "a one day old" is liable since it is taught, but not an embryo. That is, even if she was killed or started to give birth until the head came out, as is taught in Ohalot 7:6. And it brings in "Ben Sorer UMoreh" (Sanhedrin 72b): "A woman who is having difficulty giving birth, one cuts the embryo. Once the head has emerged, we do not set aside one life for another.

But it is possible that specifically when the mother is alive that the one who kills it is not liable until the head emerges, since it depends on the mother's life. But when she has died, one is liable, because it is like it is placed in a cup.

And if you say: If you say it is permissible to kill it in utero even if the mother died, and it is not like it is placed in a cup,

Then [I would ask]: why do we desecrate the Shabbat for it, that we can bring a knife through public property, to cut the mother, as is proved in Arachin 7b.

One could reply: nevertheless for saving a life we desecrate Shabbat,even though it is permitted to kill it, since "dying at the hands of a person" (e.g. condemned to death by a court) one who kills him is exempt (Sanhedrin 78a) since most dying people are [going] to death. And we desecrate Shabbat for him (Yoma 84b) since with saving a life, we don't follow the rule of "majority"

What is the legal status of abortion according to this text?

לבני נח ולא נשנית בסיני לישראל נאמרה ולא לבני נח: אדרבה מדלא נישנית בסיני לבני נח נאמרה ולא לישראל ליכא מידעם דלישראל שרי ולעובד כוכבים אסור ולא והרי יפת תואר התם משום דלאו בני כיבוש נינהו והרי פחות משוה פרוטה התם משום דלאו בני מחילה נינהו:

That which was given to the sons of Noah but not repeated at Sinai was meant for the Israelites, but not for the heathens.' On the contrary, since it was not repeated at Sinai, should we not assume that it was meant for the Noachides and not for Israel?There is nothing permitted to an Israelite yet forbidden to a heathen. Is there not? But what of a beautiful woman?— There it is because the heathens were not authorised to conquer. But what of a thing worth less than a Perutah? — There it is because the heathens do not forgiv

ליכא מידעם דלישראל שרי בדבר - שהוא מצוה לישראל לא אמרינן הכי העובד כוכבים ששבת חייב ולישראל מצוה אף על גב דבשני בשבת אין מצוה לישראל מ"מ יש עליו מצות שביתת שבת ועל העוברים דעובד כוכבים חייב וישראל פטור אע"ג דפטור מ"מ לא שרי

מיהו קשה דאמרינן בפרק בן סורר ומורה (לקמן דף עב:) יצא ראשו אין נוגעין בו דאין דוחין נפש מפני נפש אבל קודם שיצא ראשו החי' פושטת ידה וחתכתו לאברים ומוציאה כדי להציל את אמו וכה"ג בעובד כוכבים אסור כיון שהוזהרו על העוברים

וי"ל דהא נמי בישראל מצוה כדי להציל ואפשר דאפילו בעובד כוכבים שרי:

And regarding embryos, non-Jews are liable and Jews are exempt. But even though they are exempt, nevertheless it is not permitted.

But it is difficult that we said in "Ben Sorer UMoreh" (Sanh 72b) "Once its head has emerged, one may not touch it, since we do not set aside one life for another." But before it sticks out its head, the midwife may insert her hand and cut it into limbs and take it out to save the mother. This situation for non-Jews is prohibited, since they were warned about fetuses.

One can reply that also with Jews it is a mitzvah to save, and perhaps even with non-Jews it is permissible.

what is the status of abortion according to this text?

What is the contradiction with Tos. Niddah?

Abortion of a Tay-Sachs Fetus

Aryeh Gurvich

The genetic syndrome Tay-Sachs, common among Ashkenazi Jews, renders ineffective an enzyme responsible for the breakdown of a certain fat in the brain and spinal chord. By the first few months of the child’s life, this fat accumulates to toxic levels, and symptoms including deteriorating motor function, seizures, and paralysis become apparent. Children with Tay-Sachs generally do not live past the age of four. If prenatal testing finds evidence of Tay-Sachs, the most desirable option seems to be to abort the pregnancy.

When the question of aborting a fetus determined to express Tay-Sachs was first raised in 1975, the test available to establish that diagnosis could only be done after the third month of pregnancy. This would mean missing a crucial deadline established by Halacha – after three months, abortion for reasons other than to save the mother (if delivering the fetus would place her life at risk) is prohibited. So does this unquestionably preclude a pregnancy with a Tay-Sachs fetus from being aborted?

Rabbi Eliezer Waldenberg, in his responsa Tzitz Eliezer,1 relied on some Rishonim who held that it is prohibited for a Jew to kill a fetus only on a D’Rabanan, rabbinic, level, as opposed to a biblical prohibition. In Israel, where most of the physicians are Jewish, this would be less of an issue. Another source for which he found support for permitting this case is a responsa of the Maharit,2 in which he ruled that it would even be permitted for a Jewish mother to have an abortion for reasons of health, even not in the face of life-threatening danger.

Based on these sources and others, Rav Waldenberg held that since there was no pain greater than the inevitable loss of the child, as well as the years of suffering for both the parents and the baby before that, there was room to apply the heter of the Maharit to abort when delivering the fetus would adversely affect the health of the mother.

Rabbi Moshe Feinstein wrote a lengthy essay in which he sharply challenged the ruling of Rav Waldenberg.3 He cites two major Rishonim that were of the opinion that abortion is, in fact, murder:
One of the sources for the prohibition of abortion is a Tosfos in Sanhedrin4 that says that while a Jew is not administered capital punishment for killing a fetus, he is still prohibited against doing so. Rav Moshe understands this prohibition to be categorized as retzicha, or murder. There is also a Tosfos in Nida that has a discussion in which he says twice that killing the fetus before birth is totally permitted. But as was just mentioned, Tosfos in Sanhendrin wrote that killing a fetus is murder. So how could Tosfos suggest in Nida that killing a fetus is permitted?
So Rav Moshe posits that there must have been a copying mistake in the Tosfos. Rather, instead of “mutar”, or permitted, the text in Tosfos should have said “patur”, or exempt from punishment, yet still prohibited.

Rav Moshe then introduces the Rambam’s approach to abortion. For the Rambam, abortion is almost always prohibited – except when delivering the baby would endanger the mother’s life. The Rambam subsumes this exception within the laws of rodef,6 or one who pursues a potential victim with the intent to murder him. There is a mitzvah to prevent the pursuer from committing the murder, even if that would require killing him. In the middle of the discussion, the Rambam says that this is the reason why Chazal said that if a woman in labor runs the risk of death, the fetus should be aborted. Since the fetus is threatening her life, he has the status of rodef and must be killed so that she may live.

Rav Moshe writes that it is very clear from the Rambam that the fetus is aborted precisely because he is a rodef – and not because there is no prohibition of murder in killing the fetus. According to the Rambam, there is indeed a prohibition of murder in abortion, but the only reason we abort the fetus when it endangers the mother is because the mitzvah to save the life of the victim being pursued – in this case, the mother – supersedes this prohibition.

With regards to the Tzitz Eliezer’s source in the Maharit, Rav Moshe thought that particular responsa was falsified in his name, and finds strong proof in the words of the Maharit himself just two simanim previously, where he ruled on this exact issue to the contrary.

Rav Moshe ends by saying that since the fetus with Tay-Sachs does not pose a threat to the mother, he may not be aborted past three months because he cannot be defined as a Halachic rodef. This is the case even though the child will certainly die within a few years, and his death will cause much suffering to the parents. Furthermore, he cautions Torah-observant doctors against screening the fetus for the syndrome, since no good will come out of it, because they will be unable to abort the fetus and will cause grief to the parents for longer than necessary.

Rav Waldenberg later wrote a point-by-point rebuttal7 to Rav Moshe. He points out that the only incontrovertible conclusion from the Tosfos in Sanhedrin is that Jews are prohibited to kill a fetus as much as non-Jews are, and that there is no consensus among scholars as to whether Tosfos meant that the prohibition is biblical or rabbinic. With regards to the Tosfos in Nida, Rav Waldenberg was taken aback at how Rav Moshe “took the easy way out” and dismissed the proof there as a printing typo in the face of centuries of rabbinic literature that struggled to explain the text as is, some of which Rav Waldenberg references to. Rav Waldenberg also challenged Rav Moshe’s assessment of the Rambam, citing the Sema8, who maintained that the Rambam did not hold that killing the fetus is murder, as well as the Radvaz9 (who disagreed with the Rambam entirely on whether the baby is a rodef). Concerning the Maharit, Rav Waldenberg brought his own evidence to reaffirm the validity of that responsa, all the while criticizing Rav Moshe’s seemingly simplistic approach.

In the world of Halacha, generally speaking, what Rav Moshe had to say always carried tremendous weight, and many of his rulings have shaped our Halachic practice today. It would seem that the issue of abortion of Tay-Sachs fetuses would be no different. However, considering both Rav Waldenberg’s particular expertise in medical ethics, as well as his sound arguments, the discussion is far from closed, and experts of stature should be consulted on this still-controversial issue.

שו”ת ציץ אליעזר חלק יג סימן קב .1
שו”ת מהרי”ט חלק א סימן צט .2
תס”ט-ספר הזכרון למרן הגר”י אברמסקי זצ”ל, עמ’ תס”א .3
סנהדרין נט. תד”ה ליכא מידעם דלישראל שרי .4
נדה מד. תד”ה איהו .5
רוצח פרק א הל’ ט .6
שו”ת ציץ אליעזר חלק יד סימן ק .7
סמ”ע חו”מ ס’ תכה סק”ח .8
שו”ת רדב”ז חלק ב סימן תרצה .9

1. What was Rav Waldenberg's position:

what is the legal status of abortion?

why did he allow a Tay-Sachs fetus to be aborted?

2. What was Rav Feinstein's position:

what is the legal status of abortion?

when did he allow abortion, and what was the justification?

CJLS teshuvah:

https://www.rabbinicalassembly.org/sites/default/files/public/halakhah/teshuvot/20052010/grossman_partial_birth.pdf

see pp. 15-18 where she discusses different approaches to when abortion is allowed

Which of the thinkers/sources we have read would allow a Tay-Sachs abortion? What would their reasoning be?

Which of the thinkers/sources would not allow it? For those thinkers, when is abortion permissible?